Does the orthodox view of Partial Preterism in interpreting Matthew 16:27-28; 24:30–25:31-46 help interpret Revelation 20:5-15? How does the classic orthodox Amillennial view interpret Revelation 1-19, 21-22 in light of Revelation 20:5-15? How does the classic Amillennial view interpret Matt. 16:27 and 24:30–25:31-46 in light of Revelation 20:5-15? Where does Full Preterism fall within these two orthodox views? Should Full Preterism be literally condemned to hell for developing “parallels” and “identical/similar language ” which both of these orthodox schools develop?!?
